KUMPULAN SOAL CPNS TATANEGARA + Jawabannya

Kumpulan Soal Latihan Ujian Penerimaan Calon Pegawai Negeri Sipil
TATA NEGARA

1. Negara Indonesia berdasar atas Hukum (Rechtsstaat), tidak berdasar atas …
A. Kek uasaan belaka B. Lembaga negara C. Kedaulatan rak yat D. Majelis Permusyawaratan Rak yat
JAWAB: A
2. Pemerintah berdasar atas sistim konstitusi (hukum dasar), tidak bersifat Absolutisme. Apa yang
dimak sud dengan abs olutisme… A. Kek uasaan yang terbatas B. Kek uasaan yang s angat terbatas C. Kek uasaan yang tidak tak terbatas D. Kek uasaan yang tidak terbatas
JAWAB: D
3. Presiden ialah penyelenggara pemerintah Negara yang tertinggi di bawahnya…
A. Ketua MPR B. Ketua DPR C. MPR D. DPR
JAWAB: C
4. Presiden ialah penyelenggara pemerintah Negara yang tertinggi, sehingga menjalankan roda
pemerintahan dengan cara consentration of power and responsibility upon the President. Apa yang dimaksud dengan istilah di atas… A. Pemusatan kekuasaan dan tanggungjawab oleh Presiden B. Kek uasaan Presiden tidak terbatas C. Presiden memilki kekuasaan dan tanggung jawab yang lebih tinggi dari lembaga tinggi
Negara lainnya
D. Dalam menjalankan pemerintahan Negara k ekuasaan dan tanggung jawab adalah di
tangan Presiden
JAWAB: D

5. Meskipun Kepala Negara tidak bertanggungjawab kepada Dewan Perwakilan Rakyat, ia bukan
“diktator”. Pernyataan ini artinya… A. Kek uasaan terbatas B. Kek uasaan tidak terbatas C. k ekuasaan tidak tak terbatas D. Semua jawaban salah
JAWAB: C
6. Presiden ialah Kepala kekuasaan executif dalam Negara. Untuk itu Presiden memiliki pouvoir
reglementair. Apa maksudnya… A. k ekuasaan untuk menetapkan peraturan pemerintah B. Kek uasaan untuk menjalankan undang-undang C. Kek uasaan untuk menetapk an undang-undang
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Kumpulan Soal Latihan Ujian Penerimaan Calon Pegawai Negeri Sipil
D. Semua jawaban salah
JAWAB: A

7. Kekuasaan Kehakiman ialah kekuasaan yang merdeka artinya …
A. Terlepas dari pengaruh k ekuasaan pemerintah B. Tidak bertanggung jawab kepada Pres iden C. Ditetapkan oleh DPR D. Ditetapkan oleh MPR
JAWAB: A

8. Prof. L.J Van Apeldoorn menyatak an bahwa dalam istilah Negara terkandung berbagai
pengertian, antara lain penguasa, yang menyatakan… A. Organisasi yang mengelola segala k ekayaan alam dalam wilayah Negara B. Lembaga yang memilki kewenangan tertinggi dalam penyelenggaraan Negara C. Orang-orang yang melakuk an kekuasaan tertinggi atas persetujuan rak yat D. Lembaga-lembaga yang melak sanakan kekuasaan pemerintahan dalam arti luas
JAWAB: D

9. Bentuk Negara monarki konstitusional lahir dari perjanjian masyarakat berdasarkan pikiran yang
dilontark an… A. Aris toteles B. Thomas Hobbes C. J.J. Rousseau D. John Locke
JAWAB: D

10. Rak yat sebagai salah satu unsur dari Negara pada hakikatnya adalah…
A. Sek umpulan manusia yang hidup dalam wilayah suatu Negara B. Orang-orang yang menerima nilai-nilai budaya dan falsafah Negara C. Sek umpulan orang yang menurut hukum menjadi warga Negara D. Penduduk asli yang secara turun termurun hidup dalam Negara
JAWAB: C

11. Batas laut territorial suatu Negara yang diakui secara hukum internasional pada saat ini
adalah… A. 1 mil B. 3 mil C. 5 mil D. 12 mil
JAWAB: D

12. Pembuk aan UUD 1945 bagi bangsa dan Negara Republik Indonesia antara lain mempunyai
makna sebagai… A. Pernyataan tentang hak -hak asasi manusia B. Deklarasi terbentuknya bangsa dan Negara C. Peraturan perundang-undangan tertinggi D. Pernyataan kemerdekaan yang terperinci
JAWAB: D

13. Batang tubuh UUD 1945, dalam hubungannya dengan Pembukaan, seperti ditegaskan dalam
penjelasan pada hakikatnya merupak an… A. Penjabaran lebih rinci dari pokok -pokok pikiran yang terkandung dalam pembukaan B. Norma-norma dasar dalam kehidupan bernegara bagi bangsa Indonesia C. Dua dok umen historis dalam kehidupan berbangsa dan bernegara bagi bangsa Indonesia D. Penjabaran seluruh konsepsi tentang Negara yang terkandung dalam Pembukaan
JAWAB: A
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Kumpulan Soal Latihan Ujian Penerimaan Calon Pegawai Negeri Sipil
14. Penjelasan UUD 1945 merupakan penafsiran otentik dari UUD 1945, karena penjelasan
tersebut… A. Diterima secara yuridis sebagai s atu kesatuan hukum das ar B. Terdapat dalam satu rangkaian utuh dengan batang tubunya C. Merupakan penafsiran resmi dari lembaga yang merumusk annya D. Tidak dapat diubah dan tiodak dapat dipisahk an ari batang tubuhnya
AWAB: B

15. Ciri utama dari suatu Negara kesatuan jika dibandingkan dengan Negara serikat, yaitu bahwa
Negara kesatuan… A. Memiliki konstitusi yang tertulis B. Kepala negaanya merupkan pilihan rakyat C. Pemerintahaannya bersifat demokratis D. Terbagi-bagi dalam bagian-bagian Negara
JAWAB: A

16. System pemerintahan cabinet presidensiil ditandai oleh…
A. Kepala negaranya seorang presiden B. Presiden merupak an k epala pemerintahan C. Kedudukan cabinet sederajat dengan parlemen D. Presiden memegang kekuasaan tertinggi dalam Negara
JAWAB: B

17. Berik ut ini Negara-negara yang menganut pemerintahan system c abinet parlementer, kecuali…
A. Aus tralia B. India C. Jepang D. Amerik a Serik at
JAWAB: D

18. Di antara kelebihan dari pemerintahan system cabinet presidensiil jika dibandingkan dengan
system kabinet parlementer, pada system presidensiil… A. Pemerintahannya lebih sesuai dengan as pirasi rakyat B. Jalannya pemerintahan dan pembangunan relatiof stabil C. Kebijakan pemerintah dan pembangunan sangat tergantung pada presiden D. Presiden dan menteri dapat bekerjasama dengan baik
JAWAB: B

19. Dibandingkan dengan norma sosial lainnya, kelebihan norma huk um adalah memiliki sifat…
A. Tertulis dan mengatur B. Mengatuyr dan mmaksa C. Memaksa dan bersanks i D. Tegas dan tertulis
JAWAB: D

20. Norma hukum sangat diperlukan dalam kehidupan bermas yarakat dan bernegara, terutama
untuk… A. Mengayomi pihak-pihak yang lemah B. Mengatur pergaulan s esama manus ia C. Mewujudkan kelancaran pembangunan D. Menjamin k epentingan seluruh warga
JAWAB: B

21. Berik ut ini hal-hal yang termasuk dalam bidang huk um private, kecuali…
A. Ses eorang mengadakan perjanjian jual beli sepetak tanah B. Ses eorang tidak menepati perjanjian sewa menyewa rumah C. Ses eorang dengan sengaja menipu orang lain D. Seorang anak menuntut hak waris dari orang tuanya
JAWAB: C
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Kumpulan Soal Latihan Ujian Penerimaan Calon Pegawai Negeri Sipil
22. Huk um publik antara lain mengatur hubungan antara…
A. Ses eorang warga Negara dengan warga Negara lain B. Orang-orang yang menjadi pejabat pemerintahan C. Ses eorang dengan benda yang menjadi hal milik nya D. Warga Negara sebagai organisasi kekuasaan
JAWAB: B

23. Kedudukan Depan Pertimbangan Agung menurut UUD 1945 adalah sebagai lembaga…
A. Eksekutif B. Legislative C. Yudikatif D. Konsulattif
JAWAB: D

24. Berdasarkan ketentuan yang terkandung dalam UUD 1945 bahwa Indonesia menganut system
pembagian k ekuasaan, buka pemisahan kekuasaan. Hal itu dapat dibuktikan, antara lain adanya campur tangan suatu lembaga tinggi Negara dalam kekuasaan lembaga Negara lainnya. Contoh-c ontohnya sebagai berikut, kecuali… A. DPR ik ut menetapkan APBN B. Presiden memberi grasi C. Presiden mengesahkan undang-undang D. Presiden mengangkat duta dan konsul
JAWAB: C

25. Mahkamah Agung mempunyai hak untuk menguji terhadap peraturan perundang-undangan
yang berlaku, kecuali terhadap… A. Peraturan Pemerintah B. Keputusan Presiden C. Keputusan Menteri D. Peraturan Daerah
JAWAB: D

26. Menurut pasal 118 ayat 1 Konstitusi Republik Indones ia Serikat, Presiden tidak dapat diganggu
gugat. Pernyataan tersebut mengandung makna bahwa Presiden… A. Memiliki kekuasaan yang cuk up luas B. Berkedudukan sebagai kepala Negara C. Berkedudukan sebagai kepala pemerintahan D. Merupakan lembaga tertinggi Negara
JAWAB: B

27. Menurut Undang Undang Dasar Sementara 1950, pengesahan UUD dilak ukan oleh …
A. Konstituante B. Presiden C. Kabinet D. DPR
JAWAB: B

28. Menurut peraturan perundang-undangan yang berlaku, manakah di antaara orang-oirang
dalamkasus berik ut yang menjadi warga Negara Indonesia? A. Seorang wanita Indonesia kawin dengan laki-laki asing B. Ses eorang diangkat sebagai sebagai anak oleh orang asing C. Orang Indonesia yang tinggal di luar negri selama tiga tahun D. Wanita asing yang putus perkawinan dengan laki-laki Indonesia
JAWAB: D

29. Yang dimaksud dengan stelsel aktif berhubungan dengan kewarganegaraan, untuk menjadi
warga negara, seseorang perlu… A. Memenuhi segala ketentuan yang berlak u
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Kumpulan Soal Latihan Ujian Penerimaan Calon Pegawai Negeri Sipil
B. Berpartisipasi dalam pembangunan C. Memberi sumbangan nyata kepada Negara D. Mempunyai inisiatif sebagai warga Negara
JAWAB: D

30. Pernyataan berikut yang tidak ses uai dengan prinsip politik luar negri bebas aktif adalah…
A. Melakuk an k erjasama dengan negara-negara besar B. Mengirimk an pasukan ke luar negri unuk kepentingan perdamaian C. Membantu salah satu pihak yang dirugikan alam politik nasional D. Memutusk an hubungan diplomatic dengan suatu Negara lain
JAWAB: C

31. Subjek hukum perdata internasional adalah…
A. Negara B. Gabungan Negara C. Organisasi ionternasional D. Manusia pribadi
JAWAB: D

32. Tantangan mendesak yang dihadapai bangsa Indonesia dalam rangka menyongsong era
perdagangan bebas pada tahun 2020, s eperti yang telah disepakati oleh Negara-negara anggota APEC adalah mempersiapk an… A. Jenis dan mutu barang-barang produksi yang lebih kompetitif B. Tenaga kerja terampil dan mampu bek erja dalam lintas sektoral C. Kerjasama yang lebih menguntungkan bagi ekonomi nasional D. Barang produksi yang lebih unggul dalam kualitas dan kuantitas
JAWAB: B

33. Yang dimak sud dengan hukum public adalah…
A. Ses uatu yang berhubungan dengan tata negara B. Ses uatu yang berhubungan dengan tata usaha negara C. Ses uatu yang berhubungan dengan kepentingan Negara D. Semua jawaban benar
JAWAB: D

34. Yang dimak sud dengan hukum private adalah…
A. Ses uatu yang berkenaan dengan kepentingan orang-orang B. Ses uatu yang berkenaan dengan kepentingan perseorangan C. Ses uatu yang berkenaan dengan huk um perdata dan huk um dagang D. Semua jawaban benar
JAWAB: D

35. Teori Perjanjian Mas yarakat, diuraikan dengan jelas oleh…
A. John Locke B. Montesquieu C. Machiav elli D. J.J. Rousseau
JAWAB: A
36. Teori Pemisahan Kekuasaan (Trias Politika), dikemukakan oleh…
A. John Locke B. Montesquieu C. Machiav elli D. J.J. Rousseau
JAWAB: B
37. Teori Kedaulatan Rak yat, dikemukakan oleh…
A. John Locke B. Montesquieu
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Kumpulan Soal Latihan Ujian Penerimaan Calon Pegawai Negeri Sipil
C. Machiav elli D. J.J. Rousseau
JAWAB: D

38. Teori Rule of Law menurut Dicey (1835-1922), mengandung unsure-unsur…
A. Supremasi hukum B. Kes ederajatan di depan hukum C. Hak asasi manusia D. Semua jawaban benar
JAWAB: D
39. Tujuan negara menurut Immanuel Kant (1724-1804) adalah…
A. Untuk melindungi hak dan kewajiban warga Negara B. Untuk mengatur kehidupan masyarak at bernegara C. Untuk mejaga kesejahteraan mas yarakat D. Semua jawaban benar
JAWAB: A
40. Ciri-ciri Negara hukum adalah…
A. Pengakuan atas HAM termasuk pemisahan kekuasaan untuk menjamin HAM B. Pemerintah berdasarkan hukum C. Pengadilan untuk menyelesaikan masalah akibat pelanggaran HAM D. Semua jawaban benar
JAWAB: D

Kumpulan soal cpns tatanegara + jawaban
kumpulan soal cpns falsafah dan ideologi negara + jawaban
kumpulan soal cpns bahasa inggris TOEFL based + jawaban
kumpulan soal cpns UUD 1945 dan amandemennya + jawaban
kumpulan soal cpns sejarah + jawaban
kumpulan soal cpns tes potensi akademik/tes bakat skolastik + jawaban

kumpulan soal cpns bahasa indonesia + jawaban

kumpulan soal cpns bahasa Inggris + jawaban
kontroversi kiamat 2012 ( antara ramalan dan fakta )
kontroversi kiamat 2012 ( antara ramalan dan fakta ) 2
transkrip rekaman rekayasa penahanan bibit dan chandra
kiamat 2012 : enam fakta yang membuktikan ketidak benarannya
Pertanyaan seputar ponsel
soal CPNS tes potensi akademik-logika angka+jawaban
soal cpns tes potensi akademik-tes lawan kata (antonim)
ponsel : apa itu EDGE,3G,WiFi,WiBro,WimaX
soal CPNS Bahasa Indonesia2 untuk s1/d2/d3 + jawaban

KUMPULAN SOAL CPNS FALSAFAH DAN IDEOLOGI NEGARA + Jawabannya

Kumpulan Soal Latihan Ujian Penerimaan Calon Pegawai Negeri Sipil
FALSAFAH DAN IDEOLOGI

1. Secara etimologis, filsafat berasal dari kata philein dan sophos. Perpaduan kata tersebut
mengandung arti… A. Cinta ilmu pengetahuan B. Teman dari kebijakan C. Kumpulan orang bijaksana D. Pemikiran yang selalu menginginkan kebijakan
JAWAB: A

2. Kedudukan dan fungsi Pancasila sebagai falsafah hidup bangsa Indonesia merupakan…
A. Keyakinan yang memiliki kebenaran B. Sikap mental, tingkah lak u, dan amal C. Penunjuk, penuntun, dan pegangan sikap D. Pandangan hidup
JAWAB: A

3. Pancasila dikatak an sebagai suatu system filsafat bila…
A. sila-sila Pancasila itu harus kita lihat sebagai satu rangkaian k esatuan B. harus kita pahami sebagai totalitas C. susunan dan bentuknya hirearkhis piramidal D. Semua jawaban benar
JAWAB: D

4. Nilai-nilai yang terkandung dalam Pancasila, menurut Prof. Notonagoro dapat dibagi menjadi…
A. Nilai materiil B. Nilai vital C. Nilai k erohanian D. Semua jawaban benar
JAWAB: D

5. Menurut Prof. Notonagoro, apa yang dimak sud dengan nilai vital…
A. Segala sesuatu yang benar-benar penting bagi manusia B. segala sesuatu yang berguna bagi manusia untuk dapat mengadak an kegiatan dan
aktivitas
C. Segala sesuatu yang dapat menyebabkan hal yang genting bila tidak terpenuhi D. Semua jawaban benar JAWAB: B
6. Berkenaan dengan Pancasila sebagai falsafah bangs a Indonesia, maka terdapat beberapa teori
di Negara lain yang dapat menjelaskan perbedaan yang mencolok terhadap ideologi suatu Negara. Falsafah Negara-negara Eropa Barat dan Amerika cenderung menganut paham individualistic yang dikemukakan oleh… A. Thomas Hobbes B. Marx C. Spinoza D. Semua jawaban salah
JAWAB: A
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Kumpulan Soal Latihan Ujian Penerimaan Calon Pegawai Negeri Sipil
7. Secara etimologi, ideologi berasal dari bahasa Yunani idein yang berarti…
A. melihat B. Ide C. Ajaran D. Ideal JAWAB: A
8. Sedangkan logia berarti…
A. melihat B. Ide C. Ajaran D. Ideal JAWAB: C
9. Secara harfiah, ideologi diartikan…
A. Ilmu tentang idea B. Ilmu tentang cita-cita C. Ilmu tentang gagasan atau buah pikiran D. Semua jawaban benar
JAWAB: D
10. Secara ilmiah popular, Pancasila dapat dik aji, sebab syarat-syarat ilmiah teksnya dimiliki oleh
Pancasila, sebagaimana tercantum di bawah ini, kecuali A. Objek B. Metode C. System D. Empirisme
JAWAB: B

11. Manfaat filsafat Pancasila bagi setiap bidang kehidupan bangsa dan Negara Indonesia adalah…
A. Memperdalam pengetahuan dan pengertian Pancasila sebagai dasar Negara, pandangan
hidup bangsa, dan ideologi Negara
B. Menangkal budaya as ing yang masuk ke Indonesia, baik secara langsung maupun melalui
perantaar teknologi
C. Perwujudan dan pelkaksanaan setiap warga Negara dalam bermasyarak at, berbangsa,
dan bernegara
D. Sebagai pandangan hidup bangsa dan Negara Indonesia serta ak an menjiwai setiap
warga negaranya
JAWAB: D

12. Pada tahun 1365, Empu Prapanca menulis nagara Kertagama yang menyebutkan istilah
Pancasila, dan Empu Tantular menulis kitab yang menggambarkan kejayaan Majapahit, yaitu… A. Bhinnek a Tunggal Ik a B. Kertaningbumi C. Sutasoma D. Tan Hana Dharma Mangrua
JAWAB: C

13. Sidang BPUPKI pertama mengkaji tentang dasar Negara yang akan dijadikan landasan pada
saat Indonesia merdeka. Pada saat itu Ir. Soek arno mengusulkan Pancasila dengan urutan… A. Nasionalisme, Ketuhanan Yang Maha Esa, Perikemanusiaan, Kebangsaan Indonesia,
Mufakat, dan Kesejahteraan Sosial
B. Internasionalisme, Nasionalisme, Mufakat, Demokrasi, dan Ketuhanan C. Nasionalisme, Internasionalisme, Mufakat, Kesejahteraan Sosial, dan Ketuhanan yang
Berkebudayaan
D. Kes ejahteraan Sosial, Internas ionalisme, Nasionalisme, Perikemanusiaan, dan Ketuhanan
JAWAB: C

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Kumpulan Soal Latihan Ujian Penerimaan Calon Pegawai Negeri Sipil
14. Pembahasan dasar Negara dikaji pada dua badan, yaitu BPUPKI dan PPKI. Panitia Persiapan
Kemerdekaan Indinesia dibentuk pada… A. 7 Agustus 1945 B. 1 Juni 1945 C. 10 Juli 1945 D. 18 Agustus 1945 JAWAB: A

15. Pancasila sebagai dasar Negara digali dari nilai-nilai
budaya dan agama bangsa Indonesia.
Dengan demikian Pancasila memenuhi s yarat empat kausalitas sebagaimana tercantum di bawah ini, k ecuali… A. Prima B. Materialis C. Formalis D. Efisien
JAWAB: B

16. Sebelum secara resmi disahkan pada tahun 1945 sebagai dasar filsafat Negara, unsur-uns ur
Pancasila telah dimiliki dan telah melekat pada bangsa Indonesia sebagai asas dalam adapt istiadat, kebudayaan, dan religius yang terakumulasi pada… A. Ma Lima B. Bhinnek a Tunggal Ik a C. Triprak ara D. Gotong royong
JAWAB: S

17. Pancasila sebagai way of life dalam kehidupan bermasyarak at, berbangsa, dan bernegara.
Dalam k onteks ini Pancasila memilik i makna sebagai… A. Kris talisasi nilai B. Pedoman hidup C. Karak teristik bangsa D. Kepribadian bangsa
JAWAB: A

18. Pembuk aan UUD 1945 alinea IV mencantumkan dasar Negara yang tersusun secara hierarkis
dan pyramidal. Hal ini merupak an… A. Sumber kebudayaan bangsa B. Filter bagi masuk nya budaya asing C. Ciri dan k arakteristik bangsa D. Petunjuk pelaksana peraturan
JAWAB: C

19. Hubungan kaus al – organis antara Panc asila, Pembukaan UUD 1945, dan Batang Tubuh UUD
1945 terkandung empat hubungan seperti di bawah ini, k ecuali… A. Ditetapkannya dasar Negara Pancasila B. Negara Indonesia ialah berbentuk Republik C. Kedaulatan negara berada di tangan rakyat D. Keberadaaan UUD lebih tinggi dari Pancasila
JAWAB: D

20. Pancasila pernah ditetapk an sebagai satu-satunya asas dalam berbagai bentuk organisasi, baik
massa maupun parpol. Saat ini Pancasila telah dikembalikan fungsinya, yaitu… A. Tetap sebagai satu-satunya asas B. Cita-cita organisasi massa dan politik C. Sebagai dasar Negara D. Sebagai pandangan hidup bangsa JAWAB: C
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Kumpulan Soal Latihan Ujian Penerimaan Calon Pegawai Negeri Sipil
21. Setiap produk hukum yang dihasilkan di Negara Indonesia tidak boleh bertentangan dengan
Pancasila. Pancasila sebagai sumber dari segala sumber huk um tercantum pada… A. TAP MPR NO. V/MPR/1973 B. TAP MPR NO. II/MPR/1978 C. TAP MPR NO. IV/MPR/1978 D. TAPMPRS NO. XX/MPRS/1966 JAWAB: D

22. Perwujudan kesadaan manusia sebagai mahluk berak al budi yang menunjukkan harkat dan
martabatnya dan dengan tingkat k esadaran inilah maka harkat martabat manusia tetap luhur atau sebaliknya. Perwujudan kesadaran tersebut adalah berbentuk… A. Konsep hidup B. Akal sehat C. Norma D. Nilai JAWAB: B

23. Dalam paham filsafat Pancasila harkat dan martabat manusia ditentukan oleh perilaku dan
moral manusia itu sendiri, yakni… A. Sikap kesungguhan manusia dalam memperjuangk an sesuatu yang menurutnya baik dan
benar
B. Perilaku yang senantiasa merujuk pada setiap situasi yang sedang dihadapi C. Sikap kerpibadian manus ia yang baik, benar, semangat dan tercermin pada mental dan
batin pelaku
D. Sikap manusia yang bers umber pada kebutuhan hidup sehari-hari
JAWAB:C

24. Pokok-pokok pikiran yang terc antum dalam Pembukaan UUD 1945 dapat dikategorisasikan ke
dalam empat pok ok. Pokok pikiran kedua adalah bahwa… A. Negara hendak mewujudk an k eadilan sosial bagi seluruh rakyat Indonesia B. Negara melindungi segenap bangsa Indonesia dan seluruh tumpah darah Indonesia C. Negara berkedaulatan rakyat berdas ar atas kerak yatan dan permus yawaratan/perwak ilan D. Neara berdasar atas ketuhanan Yang Maha Esa menurut dasar kemanusiaan yang adil
dan beradab.
JAWAB: A

25. Sumber tertib huk um yang dianut di dalam Negara Republik Indonesia adalah s ebagaimana
tercantum di bawah ini, kecuali… A. UUDS B. Proklamasi C. UUD D. Dekrit
JAWAB: B

Kumpulan soal cpns tatanegara + jawaban
kumpulan soal cpns falsafah dan ideologi negara + jawaban
kumpulan soal cpns bahasa inggris TOEFL based + jawaban
kumpulan soal cpns UUD 1945 dan amandemennya + jawaban
kumpulan soal cpns sejarah + jawaban
kumpulan soal cpns tes potensi akademik/tes bakat skolastik + jawaban

kumpulan soal cpns bahasa indonesia + jawaban

kumpulan soal cpns bahasa Inggris + jawaban
kontroversi kiamat 2012 ( antara ramalan dan fakta )
kontroversi kiamat 2012 ( antara ramalan dan fakta ) 2
transkrip rekaman rekayasa penahanan bibit dan chandra
kiamat 2012 : enam fakta yang membuktikan ketidak benarannya
Pertanyaan seputar ponsel
soal CPNS tes potensi akademik-logika angka+jawaban
soal cpns tes potensi akademik-tes lawan kata (antonim)
ponsel : apa itu EDGE,3G,WiFi,WiBro,WimaX
soal CPNS Bahasa Indonesia2 untuk s1/d2/d3 + jawaban

KUMPULAN SOAL CPNS BHS INGGRIS TOEFL BASED + jawabannya

TOEFL Practice Test

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Table of Contents

Section 1: Listening…………………………………………………………….. 3
Listening: Part A………………………………………………………………. 3 Listening: Part B………………………………………………………………. 7
Section 2: Structure …………………………………………………………… 15 Section 3: Reading…………………………………………………………….. 18 Answer Key……………………………………………………………………… 30

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Section 1: Listening
The Listening section of the test measures the ability to understand conversatio ns and talks in English. Answer all the questions on the basis o f what is stated or imp lied by the speaker s you hear. Do not take notes.
Listening: Part A
In this part you will see sho rt co nversations between two people. Cho ose the best answer to each question. Answer the questio ns on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers.
1. Woman: Pardon me. Do you know what time that this store opens?
Man: I do not, but I believe that it is written o n the door. Narrator: What does the man imply that the woman should do ? a. Look on the door b. Open the door c. Ask someone else d. Come back later
2. Wo man: I am going to buy Johnny a toy train for his birthday.
Man: Are you sure he’d like one? Narrator: What does the man imply? a. Johnny loves to y trains b. Johnny already has too many toy trains c. Johnny said he wants a toy train d. Johnny may prefer so mething else
3. Man: I need some shampoo for my hair.
Wo man: All of the shampo o is in the back o f the store on the third shelf. Narrator: What will the man probably do ? a. Walk out of the store b. Buy the shampoo c. Come back later d. Go to another store

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4. Man: Are you go ing to go to the University o f Texas to get your Doctorate?
Wo man: I do n’t think so. Man: Why, have you been accepted to any other schools? Wo man: Yes, I have received news of acceptance fro m LSU, University of Tennessee, and Harvard. Narrator: What are the speakers d iscussing ? a. The University of Texas b. Schools with Doctorate programs c. Where the woman will go to school d. Who can get accepted to the most schools
5. Man: I ’m really tired on studying for economics every weekend.
Wo man: I hear you. Narrator: What does the wo man mean? a. She has excellent hearing b. She has hear d the man talk about this frequently c. She understands his po int of view d. She needs to have her ears checked
6. Man: We are going to get ice cream. Wo uld you like to come with us?
Wo man: I am waiting for a package to be delivered. Narrator: What does the wo man imp ly? a. She does not eat ice cr eam b. She has no money c. She does not like packages d. She will not be going
7. Wo man: Are you go ing to go to the ball game?
Man: You bet! Narrator: What does the man mean? a. He will p lace a wager on the ball game b. He will definitely go to the ball game c. He likes to gamble d. He does not like ball games

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8. Man: That’s a nice car.
Wo man: I got it almost four years ago. Man. It lo oks brand new. Wo ma n: Yes, it ’s i n go od shape . Narrator: What does the wo man mean? a. The woman need s a new car b. She likes to exercise c. She has a new car d. The car is in go od condition
9. Man: Did you get you movie passes?
Wo man: I spoke to yo ur secretary about it, and she took care of it fo r me. Narrator: What does the man mean? a. The secretary was responsib le for getting the mo vie passes b. The are no mo vie passes c. He has the movie passes d. The movie passes are in the mail
10. Man: How do you like living in America?
Woman: I am used to it know. Narrator: What does the wo man mean? a. She has always liked living in America b. She hates living in America c. She is accustomed to liv ing in Amer ica d. She would rather live in Amer ica
11. Woman: Marie sure likes shopping.
Man: I f only she liked doing homework as well! Narrator: What does the man imply about Marie? a. She is ver y likeable b. She does not put much effort into her homework c. She goes to the mall everyday d. She has a lo t of homework
12. Man: I thought I was suppo sed to perform the experiment in Roo m 45.
Woman: No. Ticket 45 is in Room 54. Narrator: What will the man probably do ? a. Go to Room 54 b. Go to Room 45 c. Buy a ticket d. Go home

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13. Man: Did you know that Tracey and Bo b are back from their honeymo on to Las
Vegas? Wo ma n: So the y d id get marrie d afte r al l. Narrator: What had the woman assumed about Tracey and Bob? a. They were still in Las Vegas b. They would not get marr ied c. They had a spectacular wedd ing d. They hate Las Vegas
14. Man: Do you usually take a nap?
Wo man: I do no w and then. Narrator: What does the wo man mean? a. She occasionally takes a nap b. She always takes a nap c. She never takes a nap d. She used to take a nap
15. Man: Can yo u believe it? I got an A o n my Finance exam
Wo man: Way to go! Narrator: What does the wo man mean? a. She is asking where to go b. She wants him to leave her alone c. She is congratulating him d. She think s he is a liar
16. Man: How did the job interview go?
Wo man: I could not have been mo re pleased. Narrator: What does the wo man mean? a. The interview went very well b. The woman did not like the interview c. The interview was cancelled d. The interview went terrible
17. Man: Do you mind if I turn o n some music for a while?
Wo man: No, I don’t mind. Narrator: What does the wo man mean? a. Music will no t bother her b. She hates listening to music c. She wants to think harder d. She does not have any mu sic

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Listening: Part B
In this part you will see several longer conversations and talks. Yo u should answer each questio n o n the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the co nversatio n o r talks. Narrator: Listen to a lecture by a bio logy instructor.
Many people think of go rillas as dangerous killers. One reason for this is that
televisio n and movies o ften show these animals this way. But gor illas ar e really gentle animals.
The gorilla is a vegetarian. It lives in the African rain fo rests where it finds the
fruits and p lants it needs to survive. A large, wild gorilla might eat over 40 pounds o f leaves and fruit in one day.
Unfor tunately, these peaceful creatures are in danger o f becoming extinct. Each
year, large areas of the rain fo rests are being cut down. Because there is less and less food from these forests, the nu mber o f wild go rillas is becoming smaller and smaller.
18. The passage describes gorillas as being:
a. Dangerous killers b. Carnivores c. TV and mo vie stars d. Gentle animals

19. Accord ing to the passage, why are go rillas in danger?
a. Because peo ple keep hunting them. b. Because they eat too much. c. Because forests get too much rain. d. Because their food supply is being destroyed.
20. If so mething is beco ming extinct, it is:
a. Becoming lively. b. Dying out. c. Growing wild. d. Getting sick.
Narrator: Listen to the co nver sation between two graduate students. Wo man: What did yo u think abo ut the assig nment we were suppo sed to comp lete for our statistics class? Man: I haven’t do ne mine yet. Is it difficu lt? Woman: Kind of. It was full of problems. Man: Derivative problems? Wo man: Not really, More a review o f the whole semester. Man: Oh. Woman: It was time consuming. Man: Really?

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Wo man. Yes. I started it at abo ut lunch time and didn’t finish it until supper. Man: I ’m surpr ised at that. Wo man: I was too, I did no t expect our pro fessor would give us so much. Man: He usually doesn’t. Woman: I know. That is why I was surprised. Man: Well, I do have some free time this afternoon. Do you know when it is due? Wo ma n: T omorrow. Man: Well, I better get moving.
21. What was on the assignment?
a. Derivative problems b. A review of the who le semester c. What was fo r lunch d. A surprise

22. What did the students find surpr ising ?
a. The length o f the assignment b. The problems c. Lunch d. The professor

23. What did the woman start at lunchtime?
a. The assig nment b. Derivative problems c. Eating d. A surprise

24. What will the man probably do next?
a. Eat supper b. Move out c. Complete the assignment d. Ask the woman to supper
Narrator: Listen to part of a conversatio n between a student and a clerk in a college bookstore. Man: I need to bu y an basic Eng lish textbook. Wo man: Okay. What is the cour se number? Man: You mean there is more than one Woman: Sure. We offer Poetry, Writing, and Literature. Man. If I take Poetry will we write sonnets? Wo man: Not r eally. The Poetry class is very basic rhyming. Man: Great. That is what I wanted to hear. How much is that one? Wo man: It’s twenty-nine dollar s, plus a ten-do llar notebook fee. Man: Wait a minute, can’t I just use my own notebook. Wo man: Most students prefer the special poetry noteboo k, so we made it a requirement.

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Man: Okay. I’ll take one Poetry book and notebook. Do you take credit cards? Wo man: Yes, but you do n’t have to pay now. Just fill out this form and we will bill you. Man: Sounds great.
25. What kind o f Eng lish textbook does the man decide to buy?
a. Writing b. Literature c. Poetry d. Sonnets

26. How much does the Po etry book co st?
a. Twenty-nine do llars b. Ten-dollars do llars c. Thirty-nine dollars d. Twenty- eight dollar s

27. Why do the students pur chase a po etry notebook?
a. Because they like poetry b. They are out of paper c. It is required d. It makes them feel special

28. How will the man pay for the textbook?
a. With a check b. With cash c. With a credit card d. With an exchange

29. What will the man probably do ?
a. Pay now b. Pay with a bill c. Go to another store d. Buy another textbook

Narrator: Listen to part of a lecture in a wetlands ecology class. The professor is talking about sanderlings.
Urbanizatio n and coastal development has dramatically reduced the beach habitat
available for foraging sho rebirds wo rldwide. This study tested the general hypo thesis that recreational u se of shorebird foraging areas adversely affects the fo raging behavior o f sanderlings Calidris alba. Observations conducted on two central Califor nia beaches fro m January thr ough May and September through December of 1999 showed that number and activity of people significantly reduced the amount of time sanderlings spent foraging. Although the sample size was low, the most significant negative factor was the presence of free running dogs on the beach. The exper imentally determined minimal approach distance d id no t var y signif icantly with the type of human activities tested. Based on

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these results, policy reco mmendatio ns for minimizing the impact of human beach activities on foraging sho rebirds include: ( 1) people maintain a minimum distance of 30 m fro m areas where shorebirds concentrate and (2) strict enfor cement of leash laws
Fig. 1

A total of 492 focal birds were observed, of which a sander ling was disturbed by
passing humans on an average of one every 15 min with 96% of those sander lings responding to humans at a distance of 30 m or less (Fig. 1). Sanderlings responded to human activity by either running (42%) or flying (58%). Within the 1-min sampling time, the disturbed sander ling generally moved o nce (58%), with 42% moving more than once due to human disturbance.
30. What hypothesis d id this study test?
a. People maintain a min imum distance from where shorebirds congregate. b. Recreational use of shorebird forag ing areas co nversely affects the foraging
behavio r of sanderlings.
c. Recreational u se of shorebird foraging areas ad versely affects the forag ing
behavio r of sanderlings.
d. Recreational u se of shorebird foraging areas ad versely affects the forag ing
behavio r of sanderlings. 42% of shorebirds move due to human d isturbance.

31. What percent o f responding sanderling s were disturbed by passing humans at a distance o f 10 meters or less?
a. More than 70 percent b. More than 80 percent c. Less than 60 percent d. Less than 0 percent

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32. What are so me enviro nmentally sound results to co me from this study?
a. Enforcement of leash laws would be effective. b. Obser ve Calidris Alba daily. c. People should maintain a minimum distance of 30 meters from shorebirds. d. Coastal development has dramatically reduced the beach.

33. This experiment determined that the most significant negative factor to reduce the amount of time that sanderlings spent foraging was:
a. Humans passing once every 15 minutes. b. Humans disturbing the sand c. Sanderlings running or flying d. Fr ee running dogs

Narrator: Listen to a conversation between a student and a graduate assistant in the marketing department. Man: May I help you? Wo man: Hello , My name is Rebecca Smith and I have an appo intment Monday at ten o’clo ck with Dr. Cudd. Man: Yes, ten on Mo nday. I see it here o n his planner. Wo man: Well, I was wondering if it would be possible to move my appointment until later in the afternoon on Monday. Man: I ’m sorr y, but Dr . Cudd is tied up in meetings all afternoon. Woman: Oh. Man: There is an appointment earlier that mo rning, if that would help you. Or yo u could see him Tuesday afterno on at two . Woman. No thanks. I’ll just rearrange my schedule.
34. Why did the woman go to the marketing department?
a. To change her appointment time b. To schedu le her appointment c. To cancel her appo intment d. To rearrange her class schedu le
35. What does the man say abo ut Dr. Cudd?
a. He will be out of town Monday b. He will be reschedu ling all Monday appo intments for Tuesday c. He is busy Monday after no on d. He is available Monday afternoon
36. What did the graduate assistant offer?
a. To give her an appointment Monday after no on b. To give her an appointment Tuesday at two, or earlier Monday c. To cancel her appo intment d. To give her an appointment next week

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37. What did the woman decide to do?
a. Make a new appointment b. Keep the original appo intment c. Go to the meeting with Dr. Cudd d. Go to another department
Narrator: Listen to part of a lecture in a macro econo mics class. The professo r will be taking about the indicators business cycle.
Because the business cycle is related to aggregate economic activity, a popular
indicator of the business cycle in the U.S. is the Gross Domestic Product or GDP. The financial med ia generally considers two co nsecutive quarters of negative GDP growth to indicate a recession. Used as such, the GDP is a quick and simple indicator of economic co ntractions. Ho wever , the National Bureau of Economic Research (NBER) weighs GDP relatively low as a primar y business cycle indicato r because GDP is subject to frequent revisio n and it is r eported o nly on a quarter ly basis ( the business cycle is tracked on a mo nthly basis). The NBER relies primarily o n indicators such as the fo llowing:
• employment
• personal inco me
• industr ial production
Add itio nally, indicators such as manu facturing and trade sales are used as
measur es o f econo mic activity.
38. What is the main topic of this lecture?
a. Gross Domestic Product b. Indicators of the bu siness cycle c. Natio nal Bureau of Eco no mic Research d. Employment

39. Which of the fo llowing is used as a quick and simple indicator o f economic co ntractions?
a. Gross Domestic Product b. Emp lo yment c. Personal Income d. Industrial Production

40. What is used to ind icate a recession?
a. two co nsecutive quarters of negative growth b. two co nsecutive quarters of positive gro wth c. four nonconsecutive quarters o f negative growth d. four nonconsecutive quarters o f po sitive growth

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41. What is an ind icator that the NBER relies upon? Please choose two answers.
a. growth b. emp loyment c. product movement d. personal inco me
Narrator: Listen to part of a conversation between a student and her professor. Emily: Thank you for letting me speak with you to day, Dr . Miller. I wo uld like to talk with you abo ut my semester average. Dr. Miller: I see. Emily: Well to be honest with you, I was upset when I saw my grade. I thought that it would have been better. Dr. Miller: Why is that? Emily: I got an A on my midterm project. Dr. Miller: I remember ho w good yours was. Emily: I received an A on my final exam, but I still received a B in your class. Dr. Miller: Your grades were ver y go od according to my grade book. Emily: Can you explain why I received a B instead of an A? Dr. Miller: Twenty percent of you grade was based on yo ur participation in the class discussio ns. Even though yo u always did well on yo u assignments, yo u never added your opinio ns or vo lu nteered in class. Emily: But I tried, I am just shy. Dr. Miller: I am sorr y Emily the syllabus states that everyone mu st participate in o rder to receive there fu ll grade for the class.
42. What event prompted this discussion?
a. Emily’s semester average b. Emily’s midterm project c. Emily’s final exam d. Emily’s particip atio n

43. Where is the conversation most likely o ccurr ing ?
a. Grocery store b. Dr. Miller’s office c. Emily’s office d. Swimming pool
44. What is the grade that Emily received on her final exam?
a. A b. B c. C d. D

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45. Why did Emily receive that grade in the co urse?
a. Dr. Miller did not like her b. She was late to class c. She never did her assignments d. She did not participate in the class discussio ns

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Section 2: Structure
This section is desig ned to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written English.
1. The Eiffel To wer ___________ Par is, France.
a. land marks b. is land marked in c. is a landmar k in d. is in a landmark

2. Young deer _________.
a. are called fawns b. be fawns c. is fawns d. are fawns called

3. Not until a dog is several mo nths old does it begin to exhibit signs of
independence ___________.
a. it s mo ther fro m b. from mo ther c. to mo ther d. from it s mot he r

4. The Treasur y Depar tment a.is t ake a new look at regulatio ns limiting the b.nu mber
of interest that bank and c.savings, and loan associations d.can pay on depo sits.

5. a.Him should b.be careful with that vase because c. it i s ve ry old d.and extremely
fragi le.

6. The repair shop a.keep my cassette player for six weeks befor e b.returning it,
c. nevertheless, d.it still does not work properly.

7. To score a goal in so ccer you ________.
a. must k ick the ball b. must k icks the ball c. may kick them ball d. must k ick them balls
8. The obser vatio n deck at the Sears Tower _________ in Chicago.
a. is highest than any o ther one b. is highest than any other one c. is higher than any o ther o ne d. is higher that any other one

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9. If it _________ so cloudy, we wo uld plan o n having the fair o utside.
a. was b. was no t c. weren’t d. had not

10. At the 1984 Democratic National Convention in San Francisco, Gerald ine Ferraro
became the first wo man _________ for the vice pr esidency.
a. to being nominated b. to has been nominated c. to have been no minated d. to will be nominated

11. Pear l Buck, a.a recip ient of the Nobel Peace Pr ize b.for Literature in 1938 c.strove
to bring und erstanding and peace d.on everyo ne.

12. In most circumstances a.the person that owns the pr operty b.can claim the rights
c.as money made d.from dr illing oil on their property.

13. _______ choco late will give you a tummy ache.
a. Eat too mu ch b. Eating to much c. Eating too much d. Eating too many

14. If she ____________ to advance her clock one hour, she wouldn’t have been late
for work.
a. sho uld have r emembered b. co uld remembered c. remember ed d. would have remembered

15. It a.was o bvio us fro m his response in the press conference b.that the cand idate
c.prepare his answers d.well.

16. A dream about falling _________.
a. scary is b. is scary c. are scary d. very scar y is

17. George Washingto n _________first U. S. President.
a. was the b. became c. were the d. are the

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18. Amelia Earhart was _______________ to pilot her plane acro ss the Atlantic
Ocean.
a. the first and a wo man b. the first woman c. who the fir st woman d. the wo man who first

19. a.Cr awfish farming b.have been practiced in south Louisiana c.for many d. years. 20. The main pur pose a.of this class is to b.help you better understand the c.history of
there co untry, and how d.it c ame t o be.

21. ____________ a tree can be grown from a seedling.
a. That is generally believed b. Believed generally is c. Generally believed it is d. It is generally believed that

22. The White Rose Bridge, a.which close today, for b.resurfacing will not be c.open
for d.two months.

23. a.When I jo ined the staff b.of the newspaper, I c.were taught to write short,
powerful d.headlines.
24. a.Since the official school colors b.are red and white, c.all o f us d.has worn red and
white to the champ ionship game.
25. The poverty level in the United State is cur rently set __________________.
a. at 12,000 dollars o r less. b. as 12,000 dollars o r less. c. at 12,000 dollar s as less d. at 12,000 dollar or less.

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Section 3: Reading
This section is designed to measure your ability to read and understand sho rt passages similar in topic and style to tho se that students are likely to encounter in North American universities and colleges. This section co ntains reading passages and questions about the passages.
Leo nardo da Vinci was born on Apr il 15, 1452 in Vinci, Italy. He was the
illegitimate son o f Ser Piero , a Florentine notary and landlord, but lived o n the estate and
was treated as a legitimate son.
In 1483, Leonardo da Vinci drew the first model of a helico pter. It did not lo ok
very much like our moder n day “co pter,” but the idea of what it could do was about the
same.
Leonardo was an artist and sculptor. He was very interested in motion and
movement and tried to show it in his art. I n order to sho w movement, he found it help ful
to study the way thing s mo ved. One su bject he liked to study was birds and how they
flew. He spent many hours watching the birds and examining the str ucture of their
wings. He noticed how they cupped air with their wings and how the feathers helped
hold the air . Through these studies, Leo nardo began to understand ho w birds were able
to fly.

Lik e many o ther men, Leo nardo began to dream of the day when people wo uld be
able to fly. He designed a machine that used all the thing s he had learned abo ut flig ht,
and thus became the first model of a helicopter.

Poor Leo nardo had only one pr oblem, however. He had no way to give the
necessar y speed to his inventio n. Yo u see, moto rs had not yet been invented and speed

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was an impo rtant part o f the flying pr ocess. It would be ano ther four hundred years
before the eng ine was invented and another fifty years befo re it was put to the test in an
airp lane. Leonardo’s dream o f a helicopter finally came to pass in 1936.
The Italian painter, sculptor, architect, engineer, and scientist, Leo nardo died on
May 2, 1519, and was buried in the cloister of San Fio rentino in Amboise.
1. What is the autho r’s main point?
a. The invention of the helicopter. b. Birds cup air with their wings and use feathers to help hold the air. c. An overview of one of Leonardo da Vinci’s many skills. d. Leo nardo da Vinci was born in 1452 and died in 1519.
2. The wor d pro blem in paragrap h five co uld best be replaced by the wo rd:
a. dilemma b. mistake c. danger d. pain

3. The word it in paragraph two refers to:
a. Leonardo da Vinci b. The first model helicopter c. 1483 d. motion and mo vement

4. Which paragraph explains why Leonardo ’s helico pter was not successful in his
lifetime:
a. paragraph 1 b. paragraph 2 c. paragraph 4 d. paragraph 5
5. The wor d illeg itimate in paragraph one is closest in meaning to:
a. against the law or illegal b. not in correct usage c. inco rrectly deduced; illogical d. born out of wedlock

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6. The fo llowing sentence wou ld best comp lete which paragraph? “Since then
peo ple have been living out Leo nardo’s dr eam of flying.”
a. paragraph 3 b. paragraph 4 c. paragraph 5 d. paragraph 2
7. What was the main problem with Leonardo ’s invention?
a. motors were not yet invented b. the birds lost their feathers c. he was illegitimate d. he couldn’t draw

8. The wo rd they in the third paragraph refers to:
a. the feathers b. the birds c. the studies d. the wings
9. In what year was the fir st helicopter flown
a. 1483 b. 1452 c. 1519 d. 1936
10. What two things did birds have that Leonardo da Vinci noticed helped them to
fly?
a. wings and beaks b. feathers and talons c. wings and feathers d. cups and feather s
11. The wor d thus in the fourth paragraph could best be replaced by:
a. Hence b. After c. Unsuitably d. Inappropr iately

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Glass fibers are extremely strong; for their weight, they are stronger than steel.
They are made by forcing molten g lass through tiny holes called spinnerets. As many as
four hundred spinnerets are placed to gether, and threads of glass much thinner than
human hairs are drawn off at great speed-miles of thread per minute. As they speed
alo ng, the threads are coated thinly with a type of g lue and twisted into a yarn.
The glass fibers are used with plastics to make boats and car bodies. They are also
woven into heavy clo th for window draperies and into strong belts for making tires
stronger.

A special kind of glass fiber is causing a revolution in commu nications. A sig nal
of lig ht can be made to travel along the fiber fo r very long distances. B y chang ing the
quality of the light, many messages can be sent at once along one strand of glass. New
office build ings are being “wired” with glass fibers as they are built. The g lass fibers will
be used to connect telephones and computers in ways that not long ago were either
impo ssible or too expensive.

Glass woo l traps air in a thick, light blanket of fiber s. This blanket is then put
into walls and ceilings to keep warm air in during the winter and coo l air in dur ing the
summer.

To make glass wool, mo lten glass is fed into a spinning dru m with many ho les in
it. As the glass threads stream out of the ho les, they are forced downward by a blast o f

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hot air and through a spray of glues. The threads are then further blown about to mix
them up as they fall in a thick mat o n a moving belt.
The glass we see thro ugh and drink out o f has many, many other uses besides the ones
described here.

12. What was the author’s main purpo se in wr iting the article?
a. To info rm you how special kinds of glass are made and used b. To persuade you to investigate the many uses of glass beyo nd those
mentioned in the article
c. To info rm you about the strength of glass fibers d. To info rm you that glue is used to hold strands o f g lass to gether

13. The wor d special in the second paragraph is closets in meaning to:
a. Distinct amo ng others of a k ind b. Add itio nal c. Commo n d. Species

14. Glass fibers are made by fo rcing mo lten g lass through:
a. Spinners b. Spiderets c. Spinnerets d. Spinets

15. The wor d changing in the seco nd paragraph could best be replaced by the word:
a. Alter ing b. Boring c. Bringing d. Doing

16. What are glass fibers woven into cloth fo r?
a. Draper ies b. Cars and boats c. Glasses d. Glue

17. The wor d fed in the fo urth paragraph means:
a. To give food to b. To minister to c. To support d. To supply

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18. The wor d they in the second sentence o f the first paragraph refers to:
a. Human hair b. Weight c. Glass fibers d. Yarn

19. The wor d it in the fourth paragraph refers to:
a. Molten g lass b. Glass woo l c. Spinning drum d. Holes

20. The fo llowing sentence wou ld best comp lete which par agraph? “This
impr ovement in techno lo gy is expected to continu e.”
a. Paragraph 1 b. Paragraph 2 c. Paragraph 3 d. Paragraph 4

21. A sig nal of what can be made to travel along fiber for very long distances?
a. Heat b. Wave c. Wool d. Light

22. The wor d spray in the fourth paragraph could best be replaced by the word:
a. Sho wer b. Blow c. Spit d. Fo rce
Fo r centuries, people have searched fo r a way to replace dead and decaying teeth
with comfortable false teeth. Many materials have been used to make a set o f false teeth.
The teeth themselves should be made fro m a hard and durable material. They shou ld be
secured to a soft material, making them easy to wear . In the last two decades, dentists
succeeded in making durable false teeth that are comfortable, too .

Two tho usand years ago, the Etr uscans made teeth out of animal bo ne and gold.
These materials were used-with var ying degrees of success-up to the 1700’s. When

23

George Washington was president, ivory from animals such as elephants became a
popular material fo r false teeth. Doctor s and inventors also tried silver, peal, and agate,
but teeth made fro m these materials wer e very exp ensive. Perhaps the most successful
mater ial was porcelain, invented by a Frenchman abo ut two hundred years ago. White,
strong, and r esistant to decay, porcelain is still used today for mak ing single teeth.

Besides finding a material for the teeth, inventors also had to find a way to secure
them in a person’s mo uth. People tried wire, spr ings, and many k inds o f g lue to
accomplish this. In most cases, however, disco mfort and a likelihood o f the teeth falling
out plagued the person who wore them.

Aro und 1844, an American dentist named Horace Wells used laug hing gas to put
peo ple to sleep before wor king on their teeth. This inno vatio n made dental work a lot
less painfu l. Soon after, an inventor created the fir st fo rm of rubber. This was important
to dentistry because teeth could be attached to the rubber, and the rubber could be mo lded
to fit the shape of the mouth. With these two developments, dentist could work without
causing pain and could fit teeth mor e carefully. False teeth have beco me mor e available
and co mfortable since then, and dentists have co ntinued to impr ove the making and use
of false teeth.

23. What is the main topic of this passage?
a. Horace Wells b. False teeth c. Gold and bone d. The Etruscans

24

24. The word they in the first paragraph refers to:
a. Teeth b. Materials c. People d. Dentists

25. The wor d var ying in the second paragraph co ld best be replaced by the wo rd:
a. Constant b. Changeless c. Fluctuating d. Stable

26. Porcelain was invented after the first use o f:
a. Rubber for hold ing for holding teeth in place b. Laug hing gas c. Ivory for making teeth d. Electric drills

27. When d id Horace Wells begin using laughing gas?
a. 1700 b. Two-tho usand years ago c. 1834 d. 1844

28. The wor d besides in the third paragraph means:
a. In addition to b. Stand next to c. Anyway d. To gether

29. The wo rd them in the third paragr aph refer s to:
a. Teeth b. Inventors c. People d. Wire

30. When was rubber fo und to be a useful material for false teeth?
a. After laughing gas was used to put patients to sleep b. While George Washington was president c. Before a Frenchman invented por celain d. While the Etruscans were making teeth o f bone and gold

25

31. The fo llowing sentence wou ld best comp lete which par agraph? “It is
unimaginable what will co me next.”
a. Paragraph 1 b. Paragraph 2 c. Paragraph 3 d. Paragraph 4

32. The wor d mo lded in the fourth paragraph means:
a. Fo rmed into a shape b. To form an organic growth c. To ma ke a n orname nt d. The fitting of a shoe

33. The wor d resistant in the seco nd paragrap h could best be replaced by the word:
a. Prone b. Insu sceptible c. Hearty d. Sassy

The lens on a camera has only two tasks. First, it must gather in as much light as
possible in o rder to activate the sensitive chemicals on the film. Second, it must organize
the light rays so that they form a sharp image on the film. These may so und like simple
tasks, but they are not.

One of the sharpest lenses is merely a pinhole in a sheet of cardboard, metal,
plastic, or a similar material. If the pinhole is tiny enough, the image can be quite sharp,
but then very little light is admitted. For most purposes, even the most sensitive film
would take too lo ng to reco rd an image.

A glass lens is much better because it lets in much mor e lig ht and focuses it on the
film. Yet simp le glass lenses are sharpest only in their centers. As more o f the lens is
used, the image su ffers in sharpness.

26

One reason a simple lens can cause problems is that it is shaped like a section of a
sphere. Spherical lenses do not focus perfectly on flat film, so the image is slightly
disto rted, especially at the edges. Another reaso n is that the lens can act partly like a
prism. This means that some of the colors in the image will no t focus properly, and the
image will be fuzzy.

One so lutio n is to block off all but the sharp- fo cusing center of the lens. If you
block off the edges of the lens, ho wever, less lig ht will get to the film. Early lenses had
to compromise between shar pness and light-gathering power.

Very sharp lenses that admit as much light as po ssible can be bu ilt by making
them with several separate lenses, or elements. A multiple-element lens has from two to
nine separate lenses. Some elements are cemented together, and some have a gap
between them. Further more, the elements are often made o f d ifferent kinds of glass, each
with a different ability to bend light r ays. Some of the elements are there just for
co rrecting problems caused by the other elements! The results are worth it, though:
pictures can be taken in many different light conditio ns, and they have a sharpness you
can almost feel.

34. The word it in the first paragraph refers to:
a. Camera b. Lens c. Film d. Chemicals

27

35. The wor d distorted in the fourth paragraph means:
a. Out of a proper or natural relation b. Clean and in shape c. Purified, as one d. Proper

36. In what ways does an image suffer if too large an area of the spherical lens is
used?
a. The edges of the image beco me fuzzy
b. Too much lig ht is admitted c. Too little light is admitted d. Colors change

37. What is the main disadvantage o f a simple lens that is made sharp by using just
the center?
a. With less light-gathering power, the lens is utterly useless. b. With less lig ht-gathering power, the lens is useful only in br ig ht lig ht. c. With more light-gathering power, the lens is useful only in dim light. d. With more light-gathering power, the lens is utterly useless.

38. The wor d sharpest in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to:
a. Having clear fo rm and detail b. Terminating in an edge o r a point c. Intellectually penetrating; astute d. Having a thin edge or a fine point suitable for or capable o f cutting or
pier cing
39. The wor d it in the fourth paragraph refers to:
a. Glass lens b. Prism c. Simple lens a. Flat film

40. The wor d sensitive in the seco nd paragraph could best be replaced by the word:
a. Delicate b. Irritable c. Reactive d. Psychic

41. The wor d ability in the sixth paragraph co uld best be replaced by the wo rd:
a. Ignorance b. Weakness c. Ineptness d. Capacity

28

42. The meaning of the word solution as used in the fifth paragraph is closest in
meaning to:
a. A homogeneo us mixture of two or more substances, which may be so lids,
liqu ids, gases, or a combination of these
b. The answer to or dispositio n o f a problem c. The state of being d issolved d. Release; deliverance; discharge
43. What is the minimum number of lenses in multiple-element lens?
a. Nine b. Two c. Ninety-two d. Twenty- nine

44. The wor d fuzzy in the fourth paragraph means:
a. Clear b. Unclear c. Exact d. Precise
45. The wo rd admitted in the sixth paragraph is closest in meaning to :
a. To permit to enter b. To have room for; accommodate c. To grant to be real, valid, or true; acknowledge d. To make acknowledgment

29

Answer Key
Section 1: Listening Sectio n 2: Structure Section 3: Reading
1. a.
1. c.
1. a.
2. d.
2. a.
2. a.
3. b.
3. d.
3. b.
4. c.
4. a.
4. d.
5. c.
5. a.
5. d.
6. d.
6. a.
6. c.
7. b.
7. a.
7. a.
8. d.
8. c.
8. b.
9. a.
9. b.
9. d.
10. c.
10. c.
10. c.
11. b.
11. d.
11. a.
12. a.
12. c.
12. a.
13. b.
13. c.
13. a.
14. a.
14. d.
14. c.
15. c.
15. c.
15. a.
16. a.
16. b.
16. a.
17. a.
17. a.
17. d.
Listening Part B
18. b.
18. c.
18. d.
19. b.
19. c.
19. d.
20. c.
20. b.
20. b.
21. d.
21. d.
21. b.
22. a.
22. a.
22. a.
23. c.
23. b.
23. a.
24. d.
24. a.
24. c.
25. a.
25. c.
25. c.

26. c.
26. a.

27. d.
27. c.

28. a.
28. c.

29. a.
29. b.

30. a.
30. a.

31. d.
31. c.

32. a.
32. a.

33. b.
33. d.

34. b.
34. a.

35. a.
35. c.

36. a.
36. b.

37. b.
37. b.

38. a.
38. b.

39. c.
39. a.

40. a.

30

40. a.

41. d.
41. b. and d.
42. b.
42. a.

43. b.
43. b.

44. b.
44. a.

45. a.
45. d.

Kumpulan soal cpns tatanegara + jawaban
kumpulan soal cpns falsafah dan ideologi negara + jawaban
kumpulan soal cpns bahasa inggris TOEFL based + jawaban
kumpulan soal cpns UUD 1945 dan amandemennya + jawaban
kumpulan soal cpns sejarah + jawaban
kumpulan soal cpns tes potensi akademik/tes bakat skolastik + jawaban

kumpulan soal cpns bahasa indonesia + jawaban

kumpulan soal cpns bahasa Inggris + jawaban
kontroversi kiamat 2012 ( antara ramalan dan fakta )
kontroversi kiamat 2012 ( antara ramalan dan fakta ) 2
transkrip rekaman rekayasa penahanan bibit dan chandra
kiamat 2012 : enam fakta yang membuktikan ketidak benarannya
Pertanyaan seputar ponsel
soal CPNS tes potensi akademik-logika angka+jawaban
soal cpns tes potensi akademik-tes lawan kata (antonim)
ponsel : apa itu EDGE,3G,WiFi,WiBro,WimaX
soal CPNS Bahasa Indonesia2 untuk s1/d2/d3 + jawaban

KUMPULAN SOAL CPNS UUD 1945 DAN AMANDEMEN + Jawabannya

Kumpulan Soal Latihan Ujian Penerimaan Calon Pegawai Negeri Sipil
UNDANG-UNDANG DASAR 1945 & AMANDEMEN

1. Berapa kali UUD 1945 di-amandemen…
A. 1 kali B. 2 kali C. 3 kali D. 4 kali
JAWAB: D

2. Pasal berapa saja UUD 1945 pertama k ali di-amandemen…
A. Pas al 5, 7, 9, 13, 14, 15, 17, 20 dan 21. B. Pas al 5, 7, 9, 13, 14, 15, 17, 20 dan 22. C. Pas al 5, 7, 9, 13, 14, 15, 17, 20 dan 23. D. Pas al 5, 7, 9, 13, 14, 15, 17, 20 dan 24.
JAWAB: A

3. Pasal berapa saja UUD 1945 kedua kali diamandemen…
A. Pas al 18, 19, 20, 22, 25, 26, 27, 28, 30, dan 35. B. Pas al 18, 19, 20, 22, 25, 26, 27, 28, 30, dan 36. C. Pas al 18, 19, 20, 22, 25, 26, 27, 28, 30, dan 37. D. Pas al 18, 19, 20, 22, 25, 26, 27, 28, 30, dan 38. J jAWAB: B

4. Pasal berapa saja UUD 1945 ketiga kali diamandemen…
A. Pas al 1, 3, 6, 11, 17, 23, dan 24. B. Pas al 1, 3, 6, 11, 17, 23, dan 25. C. Pas al 1, 3, 6, 11, 17, 23, dan 26. D. Pas al 1, 3, 6, 11, 17, 23, dan 27.
JAWAB: A

5. Kapan amandemen pertama dilakukan…
A. 19 Oktober 1999 B. 19 Oktober 2000 C. 19 Oktober 2001 D. 19 Oktober 2002
JAWAB: A

6. Kapan amandemen kedua dilakukan…
A. 18 Agustus 2000 B. 18 Agustus 2001 C. 18 Agustus 2002 D. 18 Agustus 2003
JAWAB: A

0813-2074-9020
– 1 –

Kumpulan Soal Latihan Ujian Penerimaan Calon Pegawai Negeri Sipil
7. Kapan amandemen ketiga dilakukan…
A. 9 November 2001 B. 9 November 2002 C. 9 November 2003 D. 9 November 2004
JAWAB: A

8. Kapan amandemen keempat dilakukan…
A. 11 Agustus 2002 B. 11 Agustus 2003 C. 11 Agustus 2004 D. Semua jawaban salah
JAWAB: A

9. Pasal berapa UUD 1945 keempat kali di-amandemen…
A. Pas al 2, 6, 8, 11, 16, 23, 24, 29, 31, 32, 33, 34, dan 35. B. Pas al 2, 6, 8, 11, 16, 23, 24, 29, 31, 32, 33, 34, dan 36. C. Pas al 2, 6, 8, 11, 16, 23, 24, 29, 31, 32, 33, 34, dan 37. D. Semua jawaban salah
JAWAB: C

10. Di bagian mana dalam UUD 1945, disebutkan tata cara pembetuk an Mahkamah Konstitusi…
A. Aturan Peralihan Pasal I B. Aturan Peralihan Pasal II C. Aturan Peralihan Pasal III D. Aturan Peralihan Pasal IV
JAWAB: C

11. Apa dasar hukum pembentukan Mahkamah Konstitusi…
A. UU Nomor 21 tahun 2003 B. UU Nomor 22 tahun 2003 C. UU Nomor 23 tahun 2003 D. UU Nomor 24 tahun 2003
JAWAB: D

12. Di bawah ini merupakan kewenangan dari Mahkamah Kons titusi, kecuali…
A. menguji undang-undang terhadap Undang-Undang Dasar Negara Republik Indonesia
Tahun 1945;
B. memutus sengketa kewenangan lembaga negara yang kewenangannya diberikan
oleh Undang-Undang Dasar Negara Republik Indonesia Tahun 1945;
C. memutus pembubaran partai politik; dan memutus perselisihan tentang hasil pemilihan
umum.
D. memutus sengketa peradilan pidana dan perdata
JAWAB: D

13. Yang dimak sud dengan alat buk ti dalam UU no. 24 tahun 2003 adalah…
A. Surat atau tulisan B. Keterangan saksi C. Keterangan ahli D. Semua jawaban benar
JAWAB: D

14. Macam dan harga mata uang ditetapkan dalam UUD 1945 pasal…
A. 23A B. 23B C. 23C D. 23D
JAWAB: B

0813-2074-9020
– 2 –

Kumpulan Soal Latihan Ujian Penerimaan Calon Pegawai Negeri Sipil
15. Menurut Pasal 1 UUD 1945 amandemen, MPR tidak lagi melakukan sepenuhnya k edaulatan
rakyat, k arena… A. Kedaulatan berada di tangan rak yat B. Kedaulatan sepenuhnya dilakukan melalui pilpres langsung C. Kedaulatan berada ditangan legislatif dan presiden/wapres yang dilak ukan melalui
mekanisme pemilihan langsung
D. Kedaulatan berada di tangan Mahkamah Konstitusi
JAWAB: A

16. Setiap warga negara berhak mendapat pendidik an. Hal ini tercantum dalam UUD 1945 pasal…
A. 31 ayat 1 B. 31 ayat 2 C. 31 ayat 3 D. 31 ayat 4
JAWAB: A

17. Setiap warga negara wajib mengikuti pendidikan dasar dan pemerintah wajib membiayainya.
Hal ini tercantum dalam UUD 1945 pasal… A. 31 ayat 1 B. 31 ayat 2 C. 31 ayat 3 D. 31 ayat 4
JAWAB: B

18. Bunyi pasal 32 ayat 1 mengenai kebudayaan nasional Indonesia adalah…
A. Setiap warga Negara berhak mendapatkan pengetahuan kebudayaan Indonesia. B. Negara Indonesia dilandasi oleh beragam budaya. C. Negara memajukan kebudayaan nas ional Indonesia di tengah peradaban dunia dengan
menjamin k ebebasan masyarakat dalam memelihara dan mengembangkan nilai-nilai budayanya.
D. Negara menghormati dan memelihara bahasa daerah sebagai kekayaan budaya nasional.
JAWAB: C

19. Dewan Perwakilan Rakyat memiliki fungsi legislasi, fungsi anggaran, dan fungsi pengawasan.
Hal ini diatur dalam pasal… A. 20A B. 20B C. 20C D. 20D
JAWAB: A

20. Berik ut adalah hak -hak Dewan Perwakilan Rakyat, kecuali…
A. Hak interplasi B. Hak angket C. Hak menyatakan pendapat D. Hak mosi tidak percaya JAWAB: D
21. Setiap orang berhak mengembangkan diri melalui pemenuhan kebutuhan dasarnya, berhak
mendapat pendidikan dan memperoleh manfaat dari ilmu pengetahuan dan teknologi, seni dan budaya, demi meningk atkan kualitas hidupnya dan demi kesejahteraan umat manusia, aturan ini dimuat dalam UUD 1945 pasal… A. 28A B. 28B C. 28C D. 28D
JAWAB: C

0813-2074-9020
– 3 –

Kumpulan Soal Latihan Ujian Penerimaan Calon Pegawai Negeri Sipil
22. Menurut UUD 1945 amandemen, Pemerintahan daerah provinsi, daerah kabupaten, dan kota
memiliki Dewan Perwakilan Rakyat Daerah yang anggota-anggotanya dipilih melalui… A. PEMILU B. Pemilihan oleh DPRD C. Pemilihan oleh Partai Politik D. Tidak ada jawaban yang benar
JAWAB: A

23. Gubernur, Bupati, dan Walikota masing-masing sebagai kepala pemerintah daerah provinsi,
kabupaten, dan k ota dipilih melalui…. A. Mekanis me demokratis B. Pemilihan langsung C. Pemilihan oleh parpol mayoritas D. Tidak ada jawaban yang benar
JAWAB: A

24. Siapa yang berwenang memberi gelar, tanda jasa, dan lain-lain tanda k ehormatan…
A. Presiden B. DPR C. MPR D. Semua jawaban benar
JAWAB: A

25. Siapa yang berwenang memberi grasi dan rahabilitasi….
A. Presiden B. DPR C. MPR D. Semua jawaban benar JAWAB: A
26. Berkenaan dengan perubahan isi dari UUD 1945, sebenarnya telah diatur oleh TAP MPR No.
IV/MPR/1983 tentang… A. Interpelasi B. Budget C. Mosi tidak perc aya D. Referendum
JAWAB: D

27. Apa yang dimaks ud dengan referendum…
A. Referendum adalah kegiatan untuk meminta pendapat rakyat secara langsung yang
menyatakan setuju atau tidak setuju terhadap kehendak MPR untuk mengubah UUD 1945
B. Referendum adalah kegiatan untuk meminta pendapat rakyat secara langsung yang
menyatakan setuju atau tidak setuju untuk menyatakan perang
C. Referendum adalah kegiatan untuk meminta pendapat rakyat secara langsung yang
menyatakan setuju atau tidak setuju untuk meminjam bantuan ekonomi
D. Semua jawaban salah
JAWAB: A

Kumpulan soal cpns tatanegara + jawaban
kumpulan soal cpns falsafah dan ideologi negara + jawaban
kumpulan soal cpns bahasa inggris TOEFL based + jawaban
kumpulan soal cpns UUD 1945 dan amandemennya + jawaban
kumpulan soal cpns sejarah + jawaban
kumpulan soal cpns tes potensi akademik/tes bakat skolastik + jawaban

kumpulan soal cpns bahasa indonesia + jawaban

kumpulan soal cpns bahasa Inggris + jawaban
kontroversi kiamat 2012 ( antara ramalan dan fakta )
kontroversi kiamat 2012 ( antara ramalan dan fakta ) 2
transkrip rekaman rekayasa penahanan bibit dan chandra
kiamat 2012 : enam fakta yang membuktikan ketidak benarannya
Pertanyaan seputar ponsel
soal CPNS tes potensi akademik-logika angka+jawaban
soal cpns tes potensi akademik-tes lawan kata (antonim)
ponsel : apa itu EDGE,3G,WiFi,WiBro,WimaX
soal CPNS Bahasa Indonesia2 untuk s1/d2/d3 + jawaban